[Apr 30, 2026] New CS0-003 Exam Dumps with High Passing Rate
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CompTIA CS0-003 exam is designed for IT professionals who have at least three to four years of experience in the field of cybersecurity. CS0-003 exam covers a wide range of topics, including threat and vulnerability management, network security, incident response, and compliance and governance. It is a performance-based exam that tests the candidate's ability to apply their knowledge and skills in real-world scenarios.
NEW QUESTION # 196
Which of the following best explains the importance of communicating with staff regarding the official public communication plan related to incidents impacting the organization?
- A. To ensure that all news media outlets are informed at the same time
- B. To define how each employee will be contacted after an event occurs
- C. To establish what information is allowed to be released by designated employees
- D. To designate an external public relations firm to represent the organization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Communicating with staff about the official public communication plan is important to avoid unauthorized or inaccurate disclosure of information that could harm the organization's reputation, security, or legal obligations. It also helps to ensure consistency and clarity of the messages delivered to the public and other stakeholders.
https://resources.sei.cmu.edu/asset_files/Handbook/2021_002_001_651819.pdf
NEW QUESTION # 197
During a recent site survey. an analyst discovered a rogue wireless access point on the network. Which of the following actions should be taken first to protect the network while preserving evidence?
- A. Disconnect the access point from the network
- B. Identify who is connected to the access point and attempt to find the attacker.
- C. Connect to the access point and examine its log files.
- D. Run a packet sniffer to monitor traffic to and from the access point.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Disconnect the access point from the network.
A rogue access point is a wireless access point that has been installed on a network without the authorization or knowledge of the network administrator. A rogue access point can pose a serious security risk, as it can allow unauthorized users to access the network, intercept network traffic, or launch attacks against the network or its devices1234.
The first action that should be taken to protect the network while preserving evidence is to disconnect the rogue access point from the network. This will prevent any further damage or compromise of the network by blocking the access point from communicating with other devices or users. Disconnecting the rogue access point will also preserve its state and configuration, which can be useful for forensic analysis and investigation. Disconnecting the rogue access point can be done physically by unplugging it from the network port or wirelessly by disabling its radio frequency5.
The other options are not the best actions to take first, as they may not protect the network or preserve evidence effectively.
Option A is not the best action to take first, as running a packet sniffer to monitor traffic to and from the access point may not stop the rogue access point from causing harm to the network. A packet sniffer is a tool that captures and analyzes network packets, which are units of data that travel across a network. A packet sniffer can be useful for identifying and troubleshooting network problems, but it may not be able to prevent or block malicious traffic from a rogue access point. Moreover, running a packet sniffer may require additional time and resources, which could delay the response and mitigation of the incident5.
Option B is not the best action to take first, as connecting to the access point and examining its log files may not protect the network or preserve evidence. Connecting to the access point may expose the analyst's device or credentials to potential attacks or compromise by the rogue access point. Examining its log files may provide some information about the origin and activity of the rogue access point, but it may also alter or delete some evidence that could be useful for forensic analysis and investigation. Furthermore, connecting to the access point and examining its log files may not prevent or stop the rogue access point from continuing to harm the network5.
Option C is not the best action to take first, as identifying who is connected to the access point and attempting to find the attacker may not protect the network or preserve evidence. Identifying who is connected to the access point may require additional tools or techniques, such as scanning for wireless devices or analyzing network traffic, which could take time and resources away from responding and mitigating the incident. Attempting to find the attacker may also be difficult or impossible, as the attacker may use various methods to hide their identity or location, such as encryption, spoofing, or proxy servers. Moreover, identifying who is connected to the access point and attempting to find the attacker may not prevent or stop the rogue access point from causing further damage or compromise to the network5.
Reference:
1 CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives
2 Cybersecurity Analyst+ - CompTIA
3 CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 Certification Study Guide
4 CertMaster Learn for CySA+ Training - CompTIA
5 How to Protect Against Rogue Access Points on Wi-Fi - Byos
6 Wireless Access Point Protection: 5 Steps to Find Rogue Wi-Fi Networks ...
7 Rogue Access Point - Techopedia
8 Rogue access point - Wikipedia
9 What is a Rogue Access Point (Rogue AP)? - Contextual Security
NEW QUESTION # 198
Which of the following makes STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines?
- A. XML
- B. OVAL
- C. URL
- D. TAXII
Answer: A
Explanation:
STIX and OpenloC are two standards for representing and exchanging cyber threat intelligence (CTI) information. STIX stands for Structured Threat Information Expression and OpenloC stands for Open Location and Identity Coordinates. Both standards use XML as the underlying data format to encode the information in a structured and machine-readable way. XML stands for Extensible Markup Language and it is a widely used standard for defining and exchanging data on the web. XML uses tags, attributes, and elements to describe the structure and meaning of the data. XML is also human- readable, as it uses plain text and follows a hierarchical and nested structure. XML is not the only format that can be used to make STIX and OpenloC information readable by both humans and machines, but it is the most common and widely supported one.
Other formats that can be used include JSON, CSV, or PDF, depending on the use case and the preferences of the information producers and consumers.
NEW QUESTION # 199
Which of the following best explains the importance of utilizing an incident response playbook?
- A. It establishes actions to execute when inputs trigger an event.
- B. It documents the organization asset management and configuration.
- C. It defines how many disaster recovery sites should be staged.
- D. It prioritizes the business-critical assets for data recovery.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Incident response playbooks provide a structured step-by-step guide for handling security incidents. They define actions to take when specific threat indicators or events occur, ensuring a coordinated and consistent response.
NEW QUESTION # 200
A security audit for unsecured network services was conducted, and the following output was generated:
Which of the following services should the security team investigate further? (Select two).
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
- E. 4
- F. 5
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
The output shows the results of a port scan, which is a technique used to identify open ports and services running on a network host. Port scanning can be used by attackers to discover potential vulnerabilities and exploit them, or by defenders to assess the security posture and configuration of their network devices1 The output lists six ports that are open on the target host, along with the service name and version associated with each port. The service name indicates the type of application or protocol that is using the port, while the version indicates the specific release or update of the service. The service name and version can provide useful information for both attackers and defenders, as they can reveal the capabilities, features, and weaknesses of the service.
Among the six ports listed, two are particularly risky and should be investigated further by the security team:
port 23 and port 636.
Port 23 is used by Telnet, which is an old and insecure protocol for remote login and command execution.
Telnet does not encrypt any data transmitted over the network, including usernames and passwords, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. Telnet also has many known vulnerabilities that can allow attackers to gain unauthorized access, execute arbitrary commands, or cause denial-of-service attacks on the target host23 Port 636 is used by LDAP over SSL/TLS (LDAPS), which is a protocol for accessing and modifying directory services over a secure connection. LDAPS encrypts the data exchanged between the client and the server using SSL/TLS certificates, which provide authentication, confidentiality, and integrity. However, LDAPS can also be vulnerable to attacks if the certificates are not properly configured, verified, or updated. For example, attackers can use self-signed or expired certificates to perform man-in-the-middle attacks, spoofing attacks, or certificate revocation attacks on LDAPS connections.
Therefore, the security team should investigate further why port 23 and port 636 are open on the target host, and what services are running on them. The security team should also consider disabling or replacing these services with more secure alternatives, such as SSH for port 23 and StartTLS for port 6362
NEW QUESTION # 201
An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?
- A. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains.
- B. Set an Http Only flag to force communication by HTTPS.
- C. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header.
- D. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The output shows that the web application has a cross-origin resource sharing (CORS) header that allows any origin to access its resources. This is a security misconfiguration that could allow malicious websites to make requests to the web application on behalf of the user and access sensitive data or perform unauthorized actions.
The tuning recommendation is to configure the Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to only allow authorized domains that need to access the web application's resources. This would prevent unauthorized cross-origin requests and reduce the risk of cross-site request forgery (CSRF) attacks.
NEW QUESTION # 202
An analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network that is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. Which of the following steps of an attack framework is the analyst witnessing?
- A. Command and control
- B. Reconnaissance
- C. Actions on objectives
- D. Exploitation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reconnaissance is the first stage in the Cyber Kill Chain and involves researching potential targets before carrying out any penetration testing. The reconnaissance stage may include identifying potential targets, finding their vulnerabilities, discovering which third parties are connected to them (and what data they can access), and exploring existing entry points as well as finding new ones. Reconnaissance can take place both online and offline. In this case, an analyst finds that an IP address outside of the company network is being used to run network and vulnerability scans across external-facing assets. This indicates that the analyst is witnessing reconnaissance activity by an attacker. Official References: https://www.lockheedmartin.com/en-us
/capabilities/cyber/cyber-kill-chain.html
NEW QUESTION # 203
An organization is preparing for a disaster recovery exercise. Which of the following actions should be implemented first?
- A. Identify a business-critical system and test by failing over to the disaster recovery location.
- B. Ensure that the vendor for the disaster recovery site is scheduled to support the recovery.
- C. Gather all internal stakeholders and review the actions according to the defined incident playbook.
- D. Coordinate the supporting staff for the recovery process to ensure availability at the recovery site.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Before executing any disaster recovery actions, it is essential to review the incident response and disaster recovery plan with stakeholders. This ensures everyone understands their roles and the process, minimizing errors during the exercise.
NEW QUESTION # 204
During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?
- A. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis
- B. Restore from the last known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity
- C. Log m to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs
- D. Shut down the affected server immediately
Answer: A
Explanation:
The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis. Cloning the virtual server involves creating an exact copy or image of the server's data and state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering, contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations.
NEW QUESTION # 205
A security analyst at a company called ACME Commercial notices there is outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co. The site's standard VPN logon page is
www.acme.com/logon. Which of the following is most likely true?
- A. A new VPN gateway has been deployed
- B. The security operations center is performing a routine password audit.
- C. A social engineering attack is underway
- D. This is a normal password change URL.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A social engineering attack is underway is the most likely explanation for the outbound traffic to a host IP that resolves to https://offce365password.acme.co, while the site's standard VPN logon page is www.acme.com/logon. A social engineering attack is a technique that exploits human psychology and behavior to manipulate people into performing actions or divulging information that benefit the attackers. A common type of social engineering attack is phishing, which involves sending fraudulent emails or other messages that appear to come from a legitimate source, such as a company or a colleague, and lure the recipients into clicking on malicious links or attachments, or entering their credentials or other sensitive information on fake websites. In this case, the attackers may have registered a domain name that looks similar to the company's domain name, but with a typo (offce365 instead of office365), and set up a fake website that mimics the company's VPN logon page. The attackers may have also sent phishing emails to the company's employees, asking them to reset their passwords or log in to their VPN accounts using the malicious link. The security analyst should investigate the source and content of the phishing emails, and alert the employees not to click on any suspicious links or enter their credentials on any untrusted websites. Official Reference:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
NEW QUESTION # 206
Which of the following is the best use of automation in cybersecurity?
- A. Lower costs by reducing the number of necessary staff.
- B. Eliminate configuration errors when implementing new hardware.
- C. Reduce the time for internal user access requests.
- D. Ensure faster incident detection, analysis, and response.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:Automation in cybersecurity is best utilized to improve the speed and accuracy of incident detection, analysis, and response. Tools like SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) streamline workflows, allowing analysts to focus on more complex tasks while reducing response times. This ensures quicker containment and mitigation of threats.
References:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide (Chapter 1: Cybersecurity Automation, Page 28) CompTIA CySA+ Practice Tests (Domain 1.3 Tools for Malicious Activity, Page 13)
NEW QUESTION # 207
An analyst is evaluating the following vulnerability report:
Which of the following vulnerability report sections provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs?
- A. Profile
- B. Vulnerability
- C. Metrics
- D. Payloads
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Metrics.
The Metrics section of the vulnerability report provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Metrics section contains the CVE dictionary entry and the CVSS base score of the vulnerability. CVE stands for Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures and it is a standardized system for identifying and naming vulnerabilities. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System and it is a standardized system for measuring and rating the severity of vulnerabilities.
The CVSS base score is a numerical value between 0 and 10 that reflects the intrinsic characteristics of a vulnerability, such as its exploitability, impact, and scope. The CVSS base score is composed of three metric groups: Base, Temporal, and Environmental. The Base metric group captures the characteristics of a vulnerability that are constant over time and across user environments. The Base metric group consists of six metrics: Attack Vector, Attack Complexity, Privileges Required, User Interaction, Scope, and Impact. The Impact metric measures the effect of a vulnerability on the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the affected resources.
In this case, the CVSS base score of the vulnerability is 9.8, which indicates a critical severity level. The Impact metric of the CVSS base score is 6.0, which indicates a high impact on confidentiality, integrity, and availability. Therefore, the Metrics section provides information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs.
The other sections of the vulnerability report do not provide information about the level of impact on data confidentiality if a successful exploitation occurs. The Payloads section contains links to request and response payloads that demonstrate how the vulnerability can be exploited. The Payloads section can help an analyst to understand how the attack works, but it does not provide a quantitative measure of the impact. The Vulnerability section contains information about the type, group, and description of the vulnerability. The Vulnerability section can help an analyst to identify and classify the vulnerability, but it does not provide a numerical value of the impact. The Profile section contains information about the authentication, times viewed, and aggressiveness of the vulnerability. The Profile section can help an analyst to assess the risk and priority of the vulnerability, but it does not provide a specific measure of the impact on data confidentiality.
References:
* [1] CVE - Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)
* [2] Common Vulnerability Scoring System SIG
* [3] CVSS v3.1 Specification Document
* [4] CVSS v3.1 User Guide
* [5] How to Read a Vulnerability Report - Security Boulevard
NEW QUESTION # 208
To minimize the impact of a security incident in a heavily regulated company, a cybersecurity analyst has configured audit settings in the organization's cloud services. Which of the following security controls has the analyst configured?
- A. Directive
- B. Corrective
- C. Preventive
- D. Detective
Answer: D
Explanation:
Audit settings provide visibility into user actions and system events. These are classified asdetective controls because they enable the detection of anomalies, policy violations, or unauthorized access by generating logs or alerts. They do not prevent actions (Preventive) or reverse harm (Corrective), nor do they provide policy guidance (Directive).
#Reference: CompTIA CySA+ All-in-One by Mya Heath, Chapter 13, "Vulnerability Handling and Response" - Control Types and Functions.
#Objective: 2.5 - Explain the importance of prioritization, remediation, and mitigation of vulnerabilities.
NEW QUESTION # 209
A cryptocurrency service company is primarily concerned with ensuring the accuracy of the data on one of its systems. A security analyst has been tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation for the system. The analyst will use the following CVSSv3.1 impact metrics for prioritization:
Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Question states the "company is primarily concerned with ensuring the accuracy of the data", or integrity in other words. Preserving the integrity of the data is important. So we will prioritize vulnerabilities that affect integrity (I in the CVSS 3.1 metrics)
1 - I:L, means integrity risk is low
2 - I:L, means integrity risk is low
3 - I:N, means integrity risk is none
4 - I:H means integrity risk is high
NEW QUESTION # 210
The Chief Executive Officer of an organization recently heard that exploitation of new attacks in the industry was happening approximately 45 days after a patch was released. Which of the following would best protect this organization?
- A. A mean time to remediate of 30 days
- B. A mean time to respond of 15 days
- C. Third-party application testing
- D. A mean time to detect of 45 days
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation
A mean time to remediate (MTTR) is a metric that measures how long it takes to fix a vulnerability after it is discovered. A MTTR of 30 days would best protect the organization from the new attacks that are exploited 45 days after a patch is released, as it would ensure that the vulnerabilities are fixed before they are exploited
NEW QUESTION # 211
During a security test, a security analyst found a critical application with a buffer overflow vulnerability. Which of the following would be best to mitigate the vulnerability at the application level?
- A. Implement input validation.
- B. Update third-party dependencies.
- C. Configure address space layout randomization.
- D. Perform OS hardening.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Implementing input validation is the best way to mitigate the buffer overflow vulnerability at the application level. Input validation is a technique that checks the data entered by users or attackers against a set of rules or constraints, such as data type, length, format, or range. Input validation can prevent common web application attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), or command injection, which exploit the lack of input validation to execute malicious code or commands on the server or the client side. By validating the input before allowing submission, the web application can reject or sanitize any malicious or unexpected input, and protect the application from being compromised.
NEW QUESTION # 212
A recent audit of the vulnerability management program outlined the finding for increased awareness of secure coding practices. Which of the following would be best to address the finding?
- A. Conduct a yearly inspection of the code repositories and provide the report to management.
- B. Establish quarterly SDLC training on the top vulnerabilities for developers
- C. Hire an external penetration test of the network
- D. Deploy more vulnerability scanners for increased coverage
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 213
An analyst is reviewing a vulnerability report for a server environment with the following entries:
Which of the following systems should be prioritized for patching first?
- A. 54.73.225.17
- B. 10.101.27.98
- C. 54.74.110.26
- D. 54.74.110.228
Answer: D
Explanation:
The system that should be prioritized for patching first is 54.74.110.228, as it has the highest number and severity of vulnerabilities among the four systems listed in the vulnerability report. According to the report, this system has 12 vulnerabilities, with 8 critical, 3 high, and 1 medium severity ratings. The critical vulnerabilities include CVE-2019-0708 (BlueKeep), CVE-2019-1182 (DejaBlue), CVE-2017-0144 (EternalBlue), and CVE-2017-0145 (EternalRomance), which are all remote code execution vulnerabilities that can allow an attacker to compromise the system without any user interaction or authentication. These vulnerabilities pose a high risk to the system and should be patched as soon as possible.
NEW QUESTION # 214
An analyst suspects cleartext passwords are being sent over the network. Which of the following tools would best support the analyst's investigation?
- A. Angry IP Scanner
- B. Wireshark
- C. Maltego
- D. OpenVAS
Answer: B
Explanation:
Wireshark is a packet capture and analysis tool that allows analysts to inspect network traffic and detect cleartext credentials sent over protocols like HTTP, FTP, and Telnet.
* Option A (OpenVAS) is a vulnerability scanner, not a network analysis tool.
* Option B (Angry IP Scanner) identifies active hosts, but does not analyze packet contents.
* Option D (Maltego) is used for OSINT and network reconnaissance, not packet inspection.
Thus, C (Wireshark) is the correct answer, as it captures and analyzes network packets to identify unencrypted passwords.
NEW QUESTION # 215
An incident response analyst is taking over an investigation from another analyst. The investigation has been going on for the past few days. Which of the following steps is most important during the transition between the two analysts?
- A. Identify and discuss the lessons learned with the prior analyst.
- B. Review the steps that the previous analyst followed.
- C. Validate the root cause from the prior analyst.
- D. Accept all findings and continue to investigate the next item target.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Reviewing the steps that the previous analyst followed is the most important step during the transition, as it ensures continuity and consistency of the investigation. It also helps the new analyst to understand the current status, scope, and findings of the investigation, and to avoid repeating the same actions or missing any important details. The other options are either less important, premature, or potentially biased. References:
CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Incident Response and Management, page
191. Incident response best practices and tips, Tip 1: Always pack a jump bag.
NEW QUESTION # 216
Which of the following will most likely cause severe issues with authentication and logging?
- A. Virtualization
- B. Federation
- C. Multifactor authentication
- D. Time synchronization
Answer: D
Explanation:
Time synchronization issues can cause severe problems with authentication and logging. If system clocks are not properly synchronized, it can lead to discrepancies in log timestamps, making it difficult to correlate events across different systems. Additionally, time-related discrepancies can affect authentication mechanisms that rely on time-based tokens, such as those used in multifactor authentication, leading to failures and security gaps.
NEW QUESTION # 217
A company brings in a consultant to make improvements to its website. After the consultant leaves. a web developer notices unusual activity on the website and submits a suspicious file containing the following code to the security team:
Which of the following did the consultant do?
- A. Implanted a backdoor
- B. Implemented privilege escalation
- C. Patched the web server
- D. Implemented clickjacking
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Implanted a backdoor.
A backdoor is a method that allows an unauthorized user to access a system or network without the permission or knowledge of the owner. A backdoor can be installed by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by physically modifying the hardware or firmware of the device. A backdoor can be used for various malicious purposes, such as stealing data, installing malware, executing commands, or taking control of the system.
In this case, the consultant implanted a backdoor in the website by using an HTML and PHP code snippet that displays an image of a shutdown button and an alert message that says "Exit". However, the code also echoes the remote address of the server, which means that it sends the IP address of the visitor to the attacker. This way, the attacker can identify and target the visitors of the website and use their IP addresses to launch further attacks or gain access to their devices.
The code snippet is an example of a clickjacking attack, which is a type of interface-based attack that tricks a user into clicking on a hidden or disguised element on a webpage. However, clickjacking is not the main goal of the consultant, but rather a means to implant the backdoor. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
Option B is also incorrect because privilege escalation is an attack technique that allows an attacker to gain higher or more permissions than they are supposed to have on a system or network. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by abusing misconfigurations or weak access controls. However, there is no evidence that the consultant implemented privilege escalation on the website or gained any elevated privileges.
Option D is also incorrect because patching is a process of applying updates to software to fix errors, improve performance, or enhance security. Patching can prevent or mitigate various types of attacks, such as exploits, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks. However, there is no indication that the consultant patched the web server or improved its security in any way.
NEW QUESTION # 218
Which document identifies critical services and defines Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs) and Recovery Time Objectives (RTOs)?
- A. Disaster recovery plan
- B. Playbook
- C. Backup plan
- D. Business impact analysis
Answer: D
Explanation:
ABusiness Impact Analysis (BIA)is the correct document thatidentifies critical servicesand definesRecovery Point Objectives (RPOs)andRecovery Time Objectives (RTOs). It helps organizations determine the impact of downtime and the maximum tolerable outages for business functions.
* Disaster recovery plan (A)uses the information from the BIA.
* Playbooks (C)are tactical and focus on specific incidents.
* Backup plans (D)support BIA but don't define RPO/RTO themselves.
Reference:
CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide - Chapple & Seidl, Chapter 9
CySA+ Exam Objectives: Domain 3.0 - Incident Response and Management
NEW QUESTION # 219
A security analyst is validating a particular finding that was reported in a web application vulnerability scan to make sure it is not a false positive. The security analyst uses the snippet below:
Which of the following vulnerability types is the security analyst validating?
- A. SSRF
- B. Directory traversal
- C. XSS
- D. XXE
Answer: C
Explanation:
XSS (cross-site scripting) is the vulnerability type that the security analyst is validating, as the snippet shows an attempt to inject a script tag into the web application. XSS is a web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute arbitrary JavaScript code in the browser of another user who visits the vulnerable website.
XSS can be used to perform various malicious actions, such as stealing cookies, session hijacking, phishing, or defacing websites. The other vulnerability types are not relevant to the snippet, as they involve different kinds of attacks. Directory traversal is an attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories that are outside of the web root folder. XXE (XML external entity) injection is an attack that allows an attacker to interfere with an application's processing of XML data, and potentially access files or systems. SSRF (server-side request forgery) is an attack that allows an attacker to induce the server-side application to make requests to an unintended location. Official References:
https://portswigger.net/web-security/xxe
https://portswigger.net/web-security/ssrf
https://cheatsheetseries.owasp.org/cheatsheets/Server_Side_Request_Forgery_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet.htm
NEW QUESTION # 220
......
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