Aug 13, 2026 Reliable Study Materials for CPC Exam Success For Sure
100% Latest Most updated CPC Questions and Answers
NEW QUESTION # 220
A patient with severe diverticulitis in the sigmoid colon presents to surgery for a partial colectomy. The physician performs an exploratory laparoscopic laparotomy to verify the location of the diverticulitis. Once identified, it was noted that there was bleeding from the diverticulitis. The physician transects the descending colon and then transects at the line of the rectum.
The physician mobilizes the splenic flexure in order to create a colostomy with the proximal portion of the remaining colon. The distal portion of the colon is closed. The physician washes the patient's abdomen with saline, removes all trocars and instruments, and then closes the abdomen with sutures.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM codes are reported?
- A. 44206, 44213-51, K57.41
- B. 44206, 44213, K57.33
- C. 44212, 44213, K57.33
- D. 44212, 44213-51, K57.41
Answer: C
Explanation:
Procedure Coding (CPT):
44212 - Laparoscopic partial colectomy with end colostomy and closure of distal segment (Hartmann-type procedure) Correct because:
Sigmoid/descending colon resection
Proximal colostomy created
Distal rectal stump closed
44213 - Laparoscopic mobilization of splenic flexure
Separately reportable because:
Mobilization was necessary to exteriorize colon for colostomy
Not bundled into 44212
Modifier not required (no multiple-procedure discount with add-on logic) Diagnosis Coding (ICD-10-CM):
K57.33 - Diverticulitis of large intestine with perforation and bleeding, without abscess Documentation supports:
Diverticulitis
Active bleeding
No abscess reported
Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
A / B - 44206 = colectomy with anastomosis (not performed)
A / B - K57.41 includes abscess (not documented)
C - Missing splenic flexure add-on explanation
CPT & ICD-10-CM Guideline Alignment:
Hartmann procedure # anastomosis
Bleeding elevates diagnosis specificity
Splenic flexure mobilization is separately reportable when clinically required
NEW QUESTION # 221
The surgeon performs Roux-en-Y anastomosis of the extrahepatic biliary duct to the gastrointestinal tract on a 45-year-old patient.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 222
A 50-year-old patient presented with a persistent cough has not responded to standard treatments. The patient's physician decides to perform a flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsies to further investigate the cause. A flexible bronchoscope is inserted through the patient's mouth and into the bronchial tubes. Five biopsies are taken for further testing. The biopsies were sent to the lab for analysis to determine the next steps in the patient's treatment plan.
What CPT coding is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 31628 x 5
- C. 1
- D. 31625 x 5
Answer: A
Explanation:
The procedure described is flexible bronchoscopy with bronchial biopsy (biopsy taken from the bronchi/bronchial tubes).
31625 = Bronchoscopy, flexible, with biopsy (single or multiple)
Important CPC concept: when the CPT descriptor is "single or multiple", you code it once, even if multiple biopsies are taken.
31628 is for transbronchial lung biopsy, which is not what is described (the question specifies bronchial tubes/bronchial biopsies).Therefore, A is correct.
NEW QUESTION # 223
A 60-year-old male has three-vessel disease and supraventricular tachycardia which has been refractory to other management. He previously had pacemaker placement and stenting of LAD coronary artery stenosis, which has failed to solve the problem. He will undergo CABG with autologous saphenous vein and an extensive modified MAZE procedure to treat the tachycardia.
He is brought to the cardiac OR and placed in the supine position on the OR table. He is prepped and draped, and adequate endotracheal anesthesia is assured. A median sternotomy incision is made and cardiopulmonary bypass is initiated. The endoscope is used to harvest an adequate length of saphenous vein from his left leg. This is uneventful and bleeding is easily controlled. The vein graft is prepared and cut to the appropriate lengths for anastomosis. Two bypasses are performed: one to the circumflex and another to the obtuse marginal. The left internal mammary is then freed up and it is anastomosed to the ramus, the first diagonal, and the LAD. An extensive maze procedure is then performed and the patient is weaned from bypass. At this point, the sternum is closed with wires and the skin is reapproximated with staples. The patient tolerated the procedure without difficulty and was taken to the PACU.
Choose the procedure codes for this surgery.
- A. 33533, 33257-51, 33519-51, 33508-51
- B. 33535, 33259 51, 33519-51, 33508-51
- C. 33533, 33257, 33519, 33508
- D. 33535, 33259, 33519, 33508
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 224
(A provider orders a liquid chromatography mass spectrometry (LC-MS) definitive drug test for a patient suspected ofacetaminophen (analgesic) overdose. What CPT code is reported for the test?)
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
Acetaminophen is a specific drug with a dedicated quantitative laboratory code. Even if a lab method such asLC-MSis mentioned, CPC exam questions typically expect you to choose the CPT code that corresponds to theanalyte being measured, not to select a broad "definitive drug testing" category code when a specific drug assay code exists. CPT80143is the established code foracetaminophentesting (quantitative measurement).
Codes in the 803xx range are commonly associated with drug screening/testing categories that do not specifically represent acetaminophen as a named analyte in the way CPC questions test. Code80299is an unlisted therapeutic drug assay and is not appropriate when a specific code (80143) exists. Therefore, the correct answer is80143. CPC strategy: when the substance is explicitly named and has a recognized assay code, choose thespecific drug test coderather than an unlisted or generalized testing category. The method (LC-MS) supports "definitive" testing clinically, but the code selection here is driven by the named analyte.
NEW QUESTION # 225
A diagnostic mammogram is performed on the left and right breasts. Computer-aided detection is also used to further analyze the image for possible lesions.
What CPT coding is reported for this radiology service?
- A. 77067-50
- B. 0
- C. 77065-LT, 77065-RT
- D. 77066-50
Answer: B
Explanation:
A diagnostic mammogram performed on both breasts with computer-aided detection (CAD) is reported with CPT code 77066. This code is used when CAD is utilized to further analyze the images for possible lesions, and it covers both breasts.
Reference:
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year)
NEW QUESTION # 226
A patient receives 200 mg IM Depo-Testosterone.
What HCPCS Level II coding is reported?
- A. J1071, 96372
- B. J1071 ×200, 90471
- C. J1071 ×200, 96372
- D. J1071, 90471
Answer: A
Explanation:
J1071 = Testosterone cypionate, 200 mg per unit
96372 = Therapeutic IM injection
Vaccine admin codes do not apply
ANESTHESIA
NEW QUESTION # 227
View MR 002395
MR 002395
Operative Report
Pre-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear
Post-operative Diagnosis: Acute rotator cuff tear, synovitis
Procedures:
1) Rotator cuff repair
2) Biceps Tenodesis
3) Claviculectomy
4) Coracoacromial ligament release
Indication: Rotator cuff injury of a 32-year-old male, sustained while playing soccer.
Findings: Complete tear of the right rotator cuff, synovitis, impingement.
Procedure: The patient was prepared for surgery and placed in left lateral decubitus position. Standard posterior arthroscopy portals were made followed by an anterior-superior portal. Diagnostic arthroscopy was performed. Significant synovitis was carefully debrided. There was a full-thickness upper 3rd subscapularis tear, which was repaired. The lesser tuberosity was debrided back to bleeding healthy bone and a Mitek 4.5 mm helix anchor was placed in the lesser tuberosity. Sutures were passed through the subcapulans in a combination of horizontal mattress and simple interrupted fashion and then tied. There was a partial-thickness tearing of the long head of the biceps. The biceps were released and then anchored in the intertubercular groove with a screw. There was a large anterior acromial spur with subacromial impingement. A CA ligament was released and acromioplasty was performed. Attention was then directed to the supraspinatus tendon tear. The tear was V-shaped and measured approximately 2.5 cm from anterior to posterior. Two Smith & Nephew PEEK anchors were used for the medial row utilizing Healicoil anchors.
Side-to-side stitches were placed. One set of suture tape from each of the medial anchors was then placed through a laterally placed Mitek helix PEEK knotless anchor which was fully inserted after tensioning the tapes. A solid repair was obtained. Next there were severe degenerative changes at the AC joint of approximately 8 to 10 mm. The distal clavicle was resected taking care to preserve the superior AC joint capsule. The shoulder was thoroughly lavaged. The instruments were removed and the incisions were closed in routine fashion. Sterile dressing was applied. The patient was transferred to recovery in stable condition.
What CPT coding is reported for this case?
- A. 29827, 29828-51, 29824-51, 29826, 29805-59
- B. 29827, 29828-51, 29824-51, 29826
- C. 29827, 29824-51, 29826-51, 29805-59
- D. 29827, 29824-51, 29826-51
Answer: B
Explanation:
* 29827: Arthroscopic rotator cuff repair is correctly coded as 29827.
* 29828: Arthroscopic biceps tenodesis is an additional procedure and should be coded as 29828 with modifier -51 (Multiple Procedures).
* 29824: Arthroscopic claviculectomy (partial resection of the distal clavicle) is coded as 29824 with modifier -51.
* 29826: Arthroscopic subacromial decompression, including coracoacromial ligament release, is coded as 29826.
* All these procedures were performed arthroscopically and documented in the operative report, justifying the use of these codes and the use of modifier -51 for multiple procedures.
References:
* CPT Professional Edition, AMA
NEW QUESTION # 228
The gastroenterologist performs a simple excision of three external hemorrhoids and one internal hemorrhoid, each lying along the left lateral column. The operative report indicates that the internal hemorrhoid is not prolapsed and is outside of the anal canal.
What CPT and ICD-10CM codes are reported?
- A. 46250, 46945, K64.0, K64.4
- B. 46250, K64.0, K64.9
- C. 46255, K64.0, K64.4
- D. 46320, 46945, K64.0, K64.9
Answer: C
Explanation:
CPT code 46255 describes the excision of both internal and external hemorrhoids, which matches the procedure described. The ICD-10-CM codes K64.0 (First degree hemorrhoids) and K64.4 (Residual hemorrhoids) describe the conditions treated.
References:
* AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year), Code 46255
* ICD-10-CM (current year), Codes K64.0, K64.4
NEW QUESTION # 229
A patient with three thyroid nodules is seen for an FNA biopsy. Using ultrasonic guidance, the provider inserts a 25-gauge needle into each nodule. Nodular tissue is aspirated and sent to pathology.
What CPT coding reported?
- A. 10005, 10006 x 2
- B. 10021, 10004 x 2, 76942
- C. 10006 x 3
- D. 10005, 10006 x 2, 76942
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 230
(A 3-year-old is seen by his primary care physician for anannual exam. His last exam with the primary care physician wastwo years ago. He has no complaints. What CPT code is reported?)
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
Preventive medicine codes are selected bypatient ageand whether the patient isnew or establishedto the provider. The child is3 years old, which falls into theearly childhoodpreventive age range. Because the child has been seen by this same primary care physician before (last exam two years ago), the patient isestablished, not new. For established patients, preventive codes are99391-99395, and for age1-4 yearsthe correct code is99392. However, among the answer choices, the closest matching established preventive code offered for this age group is99382, which is actually thenew patientpreventive code for age 1-4; the item's provided options appear to omit 99392. Given CPC exam rules, the correct code should be99392for an established 3- year-old. But since it is not offered and you must pick among A-D, the best keyed answer in this option set isD (99382)as presented. Exam tip: Always verifynew vs establishedfirst, then pick the age band.
NEW QUESTION # 231
A 55-year-old patient was recently diagnosed with an enlarged goiter. It has been two years since her last visit to the endocrinologist. A new doctor in the exact same specialty group will be examining her. The physician performs a medically appropriate history and exam. The provider reviewed the TSH results and ultrasound.
The provider orders a fine needle aspiration biopsy which is a minor procedure.
What E/M code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: A
Explanation:
The patient is seeing a new doctor in the same specialty group for an enlarged goiter and is undergoing a medically appropriate history and exam, along with a fine needle aspiration biopsy.
Procedure Description:
Medically appropriate history and exam.
Review of TSH results and ultrasound.
Ordering of fine needle aspiration biopsy.
CPT Coding:
99202: Office or other outpatient visit for the evaluation and management of a new patient, which requires a medically appropriate history and/or examination and straightforward medical decision making.
Since it has been two years since the last visit and the patient is being seen by a new doctor in the same specialty group, the encounter is considered a new patient visit.
AMA's CPT Professional Edition (current year).
CPT Assistant for detailed coding guidelines on evaluation and management services.
NEW QUESTION # 232
A 65-year-old man had a right axillary block by the anesthesiologist. When the arm was totally numb, the arm was prepped and draped, and the surgeon performed tendon repairs of the right first, second, and third fingers. The anesthesiologist monitored the patient throughout the case.
What anesthesia code is reported?
- A. 01830
- B. 01840
- C. 01820
- D. 01810
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 233
A 49-year-old patient arrives with hearing loss in his left ear. Impedance testing via tympanometry is performed.
What CPT code is reported?
- A. 0
- B. 1
- C. 2
- D. 3
Answer: C
NEW QUESTION # 234
During a laparoscopic hemicolectomy, the left kidney is accidentally perforated. A nephrologist performs open repair of the kidney laceration and places a JP drain.
What CPT and ICD-10-CM coding is reported by the nephrologist?
- A. 50500, N99.72
- B. 50500, 44206-80, N99.72
- C. 50500, 44206-80, S37.062A
- D. 50500, S37.062A
Answer: A
Explanation:
50500 = Repair of kidney laceration
N99.72 = Accidental puncture/laceration of genitourinary system during a procedure S37.062A (traumatic kidney injury) is not used for intraoperative complications The nephrologist does not report the colectomy, nor modifier -80
NEW QUESTION # 235
(Patient presents to the office for the removal of15 actinic keratoseslesions. The provider destroys these lesions withlaser surgery. What CPT coding is reported for this visit?)
- A. 0
- B. 17110, 17111
- C. 17000, 17003
- D. 1
Answer: D
Explanation:
Actinic keratoses (AKs) are coded using thepremalignant lesion destructionCPT family17000-17004, regardless of the destruction method (e.g., laser, cryotherapy, electrosurgery), as long as the intent is destruction. Coding is based on thenumber of lesions treated in that session:17000covers thefirstlesion,
17003is an add-on code for2-14 additional lesions, and17004is used when treating15 or more lesions.
Because the encounter documents destruction of15 AK lesions, CPT requires reporting17004only (not 17000
+ multiple units of 17003). Codes17110/17111are for destruction ofbenignlesions (e.g., warts, molluscum), which is the wrong lesion category. On CPC exams, the key is matchingpremalignant vs benignand then selecting the correct code bylesion count threshold-here the threshold is met for17004.
NEW QUESTION # 236
A planned partial meniscectomy of the temporomandibular joint is cancelled after anesthesia and incision due to respiratory distress.
What CPT coding is reported for the oral surgeon?
- A. 21060-47
- B. 21060-74
- C. 21060-52
- D. 21060-53
Answer: D
Explanation:
Modifier -53 = Discontinued procedure after anesthesia and/or incision due to patient safety
-74 is used by facility, not physician
-52 is for reduced services, not discontinued procedures
NEW QUESTION # 237
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